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Thursday, 23 February 2017

Existence theorem for planar curves

We know how to calculate the curvature of a regular curve of  R2 even if it is not parametrized by the length-arc. We pose the next

Question: let k:IRR be a smooth function. Does exist a curve  α:IR2 such that its curvature is k, that is, κ(s)=k(s)?

Answer: yes.

How do we find such a curve? We can do the next approach (and an answer) thanks to the curvature and using our knowledge from Calculus. We do an answer only for curves that are graphs of a function  y=f(x). But this is enough because any curve is locally the graph of a function.

Thus the given function k=k(s) is now a function k=k(x) where x(a,b) and k is an easy function. The curve α that we are looking for writes then as  α(x)=(x,f(x)) and its curvature is
κ(x)=f(x)(1+f(x)2)3/2.
Then we have to solve the following

Problem: let k:(a,b)R be a smooth function. Does exist a function y=f(x) such that f(x)(1+f(x)2)3/2=k(x)?

Let us use the notation from the high-school with y=f(x). We have to find y=y(x) such that
y(1+y2)3/2=k(x).
For this, let us integrate. With the change of variable given by z=y, we have
z(1+z2)3/2=k(x).
But the left-hand side is the derivative of x/1+z2. Thus, integrating from a to x, and returning with y, we have
y1+y2m=xak(t)dty1+y2:=g(x),
where g(x)=m+xak(t)dt and mR. Let us observe that the integral do exist because the integrand is a continuous function, even more, it is differentiable. As a consequence: there are many solutions because in the integral of k we can add a constant and the above formula holds again.

Now we have to find y. Then
y=g1g2, where we suppose g>0: on the contrary, we change of sign. Now let us integrate again! y(x)=xag(t)1g(t)2dt.
The integral exists answering positively to the initial question.

Remark: to find the curve, we have to integrate twice!

We give an explicit example. If k=0, then f=0, so f(x)=ax+b, which it is a straight-line.

The following example is when k is a constant function, and we have to get a circle. Recall that if the radius is r>0, then the curvature is 1/r. Thus we pose the next

Question: find y=y(x) when k(x)=c>0.

Hint: for the integral constants, take  a=0,  f(0)=1/c and f(0)=0 (why?)

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