We know how to calculate the curvature of a regular curve of R2 even if it is not parametrized by the length-arc. We pose the next
Question: let k:I⊂R→R be a smooth function. Does exist a curve α:I→R2 such that its curvature is k, that is, κ(s)=k(s)?
Answer: yes.
How do we find such a curve? We can do the next approach (and an answer) thanks to the curvature and using our knowledge from Calculus. We do an answer only for curves that are graphs of a function y=f(x). But this is enough because any curve is locally the graph of a function.
Thus the given function k=k(s) is now a function k=k(x) where x∈(a,b) and k is an easy function. The curve α that we are looking for writes then as α(x)=(x,f(x)) and its curvature is
κ(x)=f″(x)(1+f′(x)2)3/2.
Then we have to solve the following
Problem: let k:(a,b)→R be a smooth function. Does exist a function y=f(x) such that f″(x)(1+f′(x)2)3/2=k(x)?
Let us use the notation from the high-school with y=f(x). We have to find y=y(x) such that
y″(1+y′2)3/2=k(x).
For this, let us integrate. With the change of variable given by z=y′, we have
z′(1+z2)3/2=k(x).
But the left-hand side is the derivative of x/√1+z2. Thus, integrating from a to x, and returning with y′, we have
y′√1+y′2−m=∫xak(t)dt⇒y′√1+y′2:=g(x),
where g(x)=m+∫xak(t)dt and m∈R. Let us observe that the integral do exist because the integrand is a continuous function, even more, it is differentiable. As a consequence: there are many solutions because in the integral of k we can add a constant and the above formula holds again.
Now we have to find y. Then
y′=g√1−g2, where we suppose g>0: on the contrary, we change of sign. Now let us integrate again! y(x)=∫xag(t)√1−g(t)2dt.
The integral exists answering positively to the initial question.
Remark: to find the curve, we have to integrate twice!
We give an explicit example. If k=0, then f″=0, so f(x)=ax+b, which it is a straight-line.
The following example is when k is a constant function, and we have to get a circle. Recall that if the radius is r>0, then the curvature is 1/r. Thus we pose the next
Question: find y=y(x) when k(x)=c>0.
Hint: for the integral constants, take a=0, f(0)=−1/c and f′(0)=0 (why?)
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